Vocabulary Madness
In a perfect world, you'd have plenty of time before the test to memorize the 200 most commonly tested words, along with hundreds of others. You'd be ready for every possible question they could throw at you. But that's not always reality. If you find yourself seriously pressed for time before the exam, consider this file your best shot to avoid common pitfalls. We offer two sections:
a. A list of tricky lookalike words that often appear on the test
b. A quick way to learn several hundred commonly-tested words that are grouped by subject area
Tricky Lookalike Words
The following pairs of words look similar and are easily confused with each other. Test writers often take advantage of this confusion. Some are very similar in meaning, while others are different. Know the difference!
1) adulate and adulterate
2) adverse and averse
3) anachronism and anarchism
4) antipathy and apathy
5) ascetic and aesthetic
6) baleful and baneful
7) censure and censor
8) capitulate and recapitulate
9) disparate and desperate
10) divers and diverse
11) elicit and illicit
12) heterogeneous and homogeneous
13) illusion and allusion
14) imbibe and imbue
15) imminent and eminent
16) ingenious and ingenuous
17) mendicant and mendacious
18) penury and penurious
19) pestilence and petulance
20) qualitative and quantitative
21) vicious and viscious
1) adulate: to praise, adulterate: to make impure
2) adverse: hostile; averse: unwilling
3) anachronism: an outdated custom, anarchism: disruptive
4) antipathy: hatred, aversion, apathy: indifference
5) ascetic: self-denying, abstinent, austere aesthetic: related to beauty or art
6) baleful: forshadows evil, baneful: poisonous, deadly
7) censure: blame, criticize, censor: to remove the inappropriate
8) capitulate: to surrender, recapitulate: to repeat
9) disparate: different; diverse, desperate: needy, beyond reason
10) divers: several diverse: distinct, varied
11) elicit: to draw out, provoke illicit: illegal, improper
12) heterogeneous: diverse throughout homogeneous: the same throughout
13) illusion: something unreal deceptive allusion: indirect reference
14) imbibe: to drink imbue: to infuse, dye, wet or moisten
15) imminent: at any moment, soon eminent: famous, renowned
16) ingenious: original, clever ingenuous: straightforward, open
17) mendicant: beggar mendacious: dishonest
18) penury: extreme poverty penurious: stingy
19) pestilence: epidemic, plague petulance: irritable or ill-tempered
20) qualitative: having to do with a quality, quantitative: having to do with a number
21) vicious: mean; viscious: resistance to flow
No Time to Memorize? Learn to Recognize Groups of Related Words
Many test questions simply require you to have a general idea of what a word means, not an exact definition. Use this list to quickly learn a few hundred related words that are grouped in commonly-tested subject areas.
1) Communication
assertion: a declaration or statement
clarity: clearness in commmunication
cogent: convincing, reasonable
coherent: logically connected
cohesive: sticking together
didactic: intended to instruct
discourse: verbal expression, conversation
eloquence: the ability to speak persuasively
fluid: flows easily
lucid: clearly understood
rhetoric: using language effectively and persuasively
2) Legal Terms
arbiter: a judge
exculpate: to free from guilt or blame
incontrovertible: indisputable
integrity: trustworthiness
jurisprudence: the philosophy or science of law
objectivity: treating facts without influence from personal feelings or biases
penitent: expressing remorse for misdeeds
vindicated: freed from blame
3) Air of Superiority
condescending: treating others as inferior
contemptuous: scornful
despotic: having absolute power, tyrannical
dictatorial: domineering, overbearing
disdain: contempt, scorn
imperious: domineering, overbearing
patronizing: to treat in a condescending manner
4) Hard to Understand
convoluted: intricate, complex
cryptic: difficult to comprehend
futile: pointless
impede: to slow progress
obscure: to conceal
quandary: a state of uncertainty
5) Bad Habits
dilatory: always late
indolent: lazy
insipid: uninteresting, unchallenging
listless: lacking energy
torpor: laziness, dullness
6) Excessive
ebullience: intense enthusiasm
effusive: emotionally unrestrained
egregious: bad or offensive
flagrant: shocking or noticeable
frenetic: wildly excited or active
gratuitious: given freely, unwarranted
superfluous: extra, unnecessary
7) Positive Connotations
asylum: a place for retreat
auspicious: favorable, promising
benevolent: well-meaning, generous
benign: kind and gentle
emollient: soft and soothing
intuition: sharp insight
mollify: to calm or soothe
reclamation: to make something useful again
sanction: to give official approval
8) Untruthful
dubious: doubtful
dogmatic: stubbornly adhering to unproven beliefs
fabricated: made, concocted to deceive
hypocrisy: insincerity
slander: false oral statements about someone
spurious: not genuine, counterfeit
9) Sneaky
astute: clever, shrewd
camoflage: to hide by blending in
clandestine: secretive
coup: a well-executed plan
disingenuous: not straightforward, crafty
ruse: a trick
stratagem: a clever trick used to deceive someone
surrepititious: done by secretive means
wary: on guard
wily: cunning
10) Undecided
ambiguous: open to more than one interpretation
ambivalent: uncertain, felling opposite feelings simultaneously
apathetic: showing little emotion
arbitrary: determined by impusle rather than reason
capricious: impulsive
equivocate: to avoid making a decision
inconsequential: unimportant
tenuous: shaky, unsure, weakwhimsical: unpredictable
11) Hard Working
assiduous: hard working
diligent: hard working
dogged: persevering
intrepid: courageous, fearless
maverick: independent
obdurate: stubborn, inflexible
obstinate: stubborn
proliferate: to grow or increase rapidly
tenacity: persistence
12) To Bring Together
assimilation: to absorb, to make similar
consensus: general agreement
incumbent: imposed as a duty
malleable: easily shaped or formed, easily influenced
subdue: to restrain or hold back
13) Personal Space
inherent: inborn, built in
innate: inborn, possessed at birth
inveterate: long established, deep rooted, habitual
omnipotent: all powerful
proximity: closeness
14) Moving
elusive: difficult to capture
emigrate: to leave one country and settle in another
transient: moving from one place to another
transitory: short-lived or temporary
15) Friendly
affable: friendly
amenable: agreeable
camaraderie: goodwill
candor: sincerity, openness
facetious: playfully humorous
16) Feeling Bad
impinge: hinder
lament: mourn
melancholy: sadness, depression
truncated: shortened, cut off
17) Writing
aesthetic: appreciation of beauty
anthology: a collection of literary pieces
dilettante: one with a superficial understanding of a field
eclectic: composed of a variety of sources or styles
excerpt: a selected part of a passage
genre: a category of art
medley: as assortment or mixture of musical pieces
parody: an artistic work that imitates the style of another work for comic effect
virtuoso: a skilled artist
18) Calmness
decorous: proper, good taste
equanimity: composure
propriety: appropriate behavior
prudent: using good judgment or common sense
serene: calm
staid: serious, unemotional
stoic: impassive, indifferent to pleasure or pain
19) Negative Thoughts
disparage: to belittle, to speak badly of
pejorative: to speak ngatively of someone
plagiarism: to pass someone else's ideas or writing off as one's own
vilify: to make vicious statements about
20) Rude
brusque: abrupt
caustic: biting, sarcastic
feral: savage, untamed
fractious: quarrelsome, unruly
incorrigible: unable to be reformed
ingrate: ungrateful person
insolent: insulting in manner or speech
notorious: known widely in an unfavorable manner
pugnacious: combative, belligerent
reprehensible: worthy of blame
21) Evil
deleterious: injurious, having aharmful effect
enmity: mutual hatred or ill-will
heinous: evil, abominable
malfeasance: wrongdoing, misconduct
malice: ill will
putrid: rotten
rancorous: hateful
22) Old
archaic: old-fashioned
hackneyed: trite, overused
medieval: old-fashioned
obsolete: no longer in use, old-fashioned
23) Boring
austere: without decoration, plain
mediocrity: average, low quality
mundane: ordinary, commonplace
ponderous: dull
prosaic: dull, unimaginative
sedentary: settled, not migratory
24) Bad Feelings
harbinger: something that indicates what is to come, a forerunenr
ominous: menacing, threatening
timorous: timid, fearful of the future
trepidation: uncertainty, apprehension
25) New
innovative: introducing somehting new
naive: lacking sophistication
nascent: emerging
novice: a beginner
26) Earth
arid: a dry, rainless climate
conflagration: a widespread fire
nocturnal: occurring in the night
sonorous: producing a deep or full sound
27) Abundant
comprehensive: large in scope
copious: plentiful
permeated: spread or flowing throughout
pervasive: dispersed throughout
prodigious: enormous
replete: filled to capacity
28) Respect
exemplary: commendable, worthy of imitation
laudatory: giving praise
venerated: highly respected
facile: easy
fastidious: paying careful attention to detail, hard to please
meticulous: careful and precise
pramatic: practical
solvent: able to pay one's debts
29) Scientific
abstract: not applied to actual objects
paradigm: an exmaple or model
rational: logical, motivated by reaosn rahter than feeligns
theoretical: lacking practical application
Saturday, July 26, 2008
Analogies on the GRE
The Verbal section of the GRE contains approximately 7 analogy questions, which present two words that are related in some way. You must:
a) discover the relationship
b) find another pair of words that is related in the same way
Example:
WAGGISH : LAUGHS ::
(A) risible: yawns
(B) bilious : smiles
(C) lachrymose : tears
(D) ribald : moans
(E) frown grin
The correct answer is C. A remark that is waggish is designed to produce laughs. Likewise, something that is lachrymose (sad) will produce tears.
What the colons mean:
Single colon (:) means "is related to"
Double colon (::) means "in the same way that"
To answer analogy questions, use the following strategy:
1) Before looking at the answer choices, think of a short sentence that describes the relationship between the two words.
Example: RACKET: TENNIS
A racket is used to play tennis
2) Find the pair of words in the answers that can be substituted for the original pair.
Example:
RACKET: TENNIS
(A) type : book
(B) ball : soccer
(C) glove : baseball
(D) club : golf
(E) board : chess
In this case, our sentence "A racket is used to play tennis" eliminates only one answer choice, (A) .
3) If more than one answer choice fits your paraphrase, make your statement more specific.
We must write a more specific sentence that demonstrates the relationship between the words Racket and Tennis:
A racket is used to strike a ball in the game of tennis.
This more specific sentence allows us to eliminate all the answer choices except D. Just as a club is used to strike a golf ball, a racket is used to strike a tennis ball.
4) Eliminate answer choices that do not have a clear and obvious relationship. Always consider the meaning of the word being used. In difficult analogy problems, rare or esoteric meanings of words are commonly used.
5) If one of the given words has more than one part of speech, determine how it is being used in the analogy. The parts of speech will be consistent in analogy problems. If the given pair of words is an adjective and a noun, then each answer pair will be an adjective and a noun, in that order.
6) Carefully scrutinize answers pairs that remind you of the original pair, but have a different relationship. The correct answer pair will have the same relationship as the original pair, but the words in the answer will usually be in an entirely different category.
Example:
EXCERPT : NOVEL ::
(A) critique : play
(B) review : manuscript
(C) swatch : cloth
(D) foreward : preface
(E) recital : performance
The correct answer to this problem is C. An excerpt is part of a novel, just as a swatch is part of a cloth. However, many testakers are distracted by choices B and D, which contain words that ALSO relate to novels.
7) Be aware of the most common types of analogies that appear on the test:
a) Synonyms
provisions : supplies
potent : omen
diligent : assiduous
b) Antonyms
assist : hinder
enthrall : bore
incomparable : equal
c) Member and class
aria : song
robin : bird
slipper : shoe
d) Degree of Intensity
walk : run
drizzle : rain
grow : burgeon
e) Part to a whole
professors : faculty
page : book
limb : tree
f) Definition (one word defines the other)
shark : scavenger
lion : carnivore
refuge : sanctuary
g) Lack of / Absence of
amoral : ethics
anonymous : name
destitute : wealth
h) Manner or style
promenade: walk
prattle : speak
sashay : walk
i) Function or purpose
pencil: writing
tractor : plowing
hyphen : join
j) Action and significance
smile : happiness
frown : disappointment
bow : reverence
k) Pertaining to
didactic : teach
forensic : debate
ontology : being
l) Symbol and representation
period : stop
Trojan horse : deception
brackets : enclose
m) Different Connotations of words
interrogate : question
conspire : collaborate
bias : inspire
n) Cause and effect
sun : sunburn
overeating : indigestion
debt : overspending
o) Product and source
curtains : cloth
window : glass
fireplace : brick
p) Spatial order
epilogue : story
postscript : epistle
intermission : play
q) Time order
outline : essay
blueprint : house
crawling : walking
r) Worker and tool
welder : torch
musician : piano
artist : paintbrush
s) Worker and workplace
chef : kitchen
judge: courtroom
farmer : meadow
t) Worker and creation
artist : sketch
architecht : blueprint
composer : etude
u) Action to object
play : clarinet
incise : knife
drain : colander
8) Boost your vocabulary.
Analogies are probably the hardest type of question to improve on, as they depend on the inherent strength of your vocabulary. Other than trying to memorize a dictionary (which we do NOT recommend), there aren't many short-term ways to quickly learn hundreds or thousands of new words. A large vocabulary is built over time, usually by voracious reading.
This does not mean that it is hopeless, however. This website (www.IvyLeagueAdmission.com) includes the following lists:
a) the 180 most common words featured on the GRE (definitions plus illustrative sentences)
b) groups of related words
c) tricky lookalike words that testmakers love
d) the most common roots, prefixes and suffixes for GRE vocabulary words
We consider these lists valuable preparation for sentence completion and analogy test questions. Study this list each day during the weeks just before taking the GRE and learn as many new words as possible. We suggest the following plan of attack for defining words:
a) Define the stem word. If you don't know the precise definition of the word in capital letters, an approximate definition will probably be sufficient. Most words are built or derived from other words with which you may be more familiar:
Examples:
a) tempestuous Related Words temper
b) perturbation Related Word: perturbed
c) severance Related Word: sever
b) Put the word in context. When we speak, we use words in phrases in sentences, rather than in isolation. Yet words that we understand fully in sentences may appear unfamiliar when we view them out of context. When you see a word on the GRE, put it in a familiar context to better understand its meaning.
Examples:
a) savant "idiot savant" means genious
b) gratuitous "gratuitous violence" means unnecessary
c) requiem "requiem for a heavyweight" means a rest
c) Test the word for positive or negative connotations.
i) Any word that starts with "de-", "dis-" or "anti-" is usually negative. This includes degradation, discrepancy, debase, antipathy
ii) Words that include the concept of going up are usually positive, while those that include the concept of going down are usually negative.
Positive examples: elevate, ascend, adulation, illustrious
Negative examples: decline, suborn, derision, consecrate
d) Watch out for words that look similar, but have different meanings.
Examples: ambulance/ambulatory, suffer/suffrage, friend/fiend, platitude/gratitude,
inspired/insipid, vicious/viscous, noble/ignoble
e) Don't overlook rare meanings of words, as they are commonly used on the GRE. The parts of speech in an analogy problem will be consistent throughout the problem. If the given word is a verb, all of the answer choices will also be verbs. This helps you to quickly determine if the word is being used in a secondary sense, as common words have different meanings if they are used as verbs, nouns or adjectives.
Words that are commonly used as both nouns and verbs:
curb document table harbor
rent steep flower bolt
champion air bustle
10 Analogy Questions (w/ Solutions)
1. TRUSS: SUPPORT::
(A) calcium: bone
(B) fence: barrier
(C) tile: patio
(D) wood. burn
(E) tobacco: cigarette
2. REEL: TAPE ::
(A) ball: string
(B) turntable: record
(C) tire: wheel
(D) skein: yarn
(E) spool: thread
3. SHINGLE: ROOF::
(A) rind: melon
(B) armor: knight
(C) feather: wing
(D) patch: cloth
(E) canopy: bed
4. RHETORIC : ORATOR::
(A) legerdemain : magician
(B) baggage: immigrant
(C) justice: lawyer
(D) map: cartographer
(E) tractor: farmer
5. INDISPUTABLE: QUESTION ::
(A) unlikely: know
(B) amoral: perform
(C) incredible: prove
(D) immutable: change
(E) insoluble: submerge
6. UNSCATHED: DAMAGE ::
(A) ameliorated: improvement
(B) obliterated: invisibility
(C) rolled: flatness
(D) shaken: homogeneity
(E) arid: dampness
7. PROTRACTION: DURATION::
(A) extension: length
(B) retraction: instant
(C) corruption: truth
(D) taxation: wealth
(E) altercation: shape
8. PORTRAIT : CARICATURE::
(A) serialization: novel
(B) drama: musical
(C) theater: vaudeville
(D) saga: epic
(E) characterization : parody
9. STARS: GALAXY::
(A) cells: prison
(B) sand: dune
(C) nuclei: atom
(D) eggs : nest
(E) hair: head
10. ATROPHY : INACTIVITY::
(A) resistance : timidity
(B) frown : anger
(C) growth : youth
(D) rot : refrigeration
(E) debt : overspending
Solutions to Analogy Questions
1. B is correct. A truss is used as a support.
Likewise, a fence is used as a barrier.
2. E is correct. A reel is an object that tape winds around.
Likewise, a spool is an object that thread winds around.
3. C is correct. Many shingles make up the outer covering of a rook.
Likewise, many feathers make up the outer covering of a wing.
4. A is correct. Rhetoric is a skill used by an orator.
Likewise, legerdemain is a skill used by a magician.
5. D is correct. Something indisputable cannot be questioned.
Likewise, something immutable cannot be changed.
6. E is correct. Somthing unscathed lacks damage.
Likewise, something arid lacks dampness.
7. A is correct. A protraction is an increase in duration.
Likewise, an extension is an increase in length.
8. E is correct. An exaggerated portrait is a caricature.
Likewise, an exaggerated characterization is a parody.
9. B is correct. Stars make up a galaxy.
Likewise, sand makes up a dune.
10. E is correct. Atrophy is caused by inactivity.
Likewise, debt is caused by overspending.
The Verbal section of the GRE contains approximately 7 analogy questions, which present two words that are related in some way. You must:
a) discover the relationship
b) find another pair of words that is related in the same way
Example:
WAGGISH : LAUGHS ::
(A) risible: yawns
(B) bilious : smiles
(C) lachrymose : tears
(D) ribald : moans
(E) frown grin
The correct answer is C. A remark that is waggish is designed to produce laughs. Likewise, something that is lachrymose (sad) will produce tears.
What the colons mean:
Single colon (:) means "is related to"
Double colon (::) means "in the same way that"
To answer analogy questions, use the following strategy:
1) Before looking at the answer choices, think of a short sentence that describes the relationship between the two words.
Example: RACKET: TENNIS
A racket is used to play tennis
2) Find the pair of words in the answers that can be substituted for the original pair.
Example:
RACKET: TENNIS
(A) type : book
(B) ball : soccer
(C) glove : baseball
(D) club : golf
(E) board : chess
In this case, our sentence "A racket is used to play tennis" eliminates only one answer choice, (A) .
3) If more than one answer choice fits your paraphrase, make your statement more specific.
We must write a more specific sentence that demonstrates the relationship between the words Racket and Tennis:
A racket is used to strike a ball in the game of tennis.
This more specific sentence allows us to eliminate all the answer choices except D. Just as a club is used to strike a golf ball, a racket is used to strike a tennis ball.
4) Eliminate answer choices that do not have a clear and obvious relationship. Always consider the meaning of the word being used. In difficult analogy problems, rare or esoteric meanings of words are commonly used.
5) If one of the given words has more than one part of speech, determine how it is being used in the analogy. The parts of speech will be consistent in analogy problems. If the given pair of words is an adjective and a noun, then each answer pair will be an adjective and a noun, in that order.
6) Carefully scrutinize answers pairs that remind you of the original pair, but have a different relationship. The correct answer pair will have the same relationship as the original pair, but the words in the answer will usually be in an entirely different category.
Example:
EXCERPT : NOVEL ::
(A) critique : play
(B) review : manuscript
(C) swatch : cloth
(D) foreward : preface
(E) recital : performance
The correct answer to this problem is C. An excerpt is part of a novel, just as a swatch is part of a cloth. However, many testakers are distracted by choices B and D, which contain words that ALSO relate to novels.
7) Be aware of the most common types of analogies that appear on the test:
a) Synonyms
provisions : supplies
potent : omen
diligent : assiduous
b) Antonyms
assist : hinder
enthrall : bore
incomparable : equal
c) Member and class
aria : song
robin : bird
slipper : shoe
d) Degree of Intensity
walk : run
drizzle : rain
grow : burgeon
e) Part to a whole
professors : faculty
page : book
limb : tree
f) Definition (one word defines the other)
shark : scavenger
lion : carnivore
refuge : sanctuary
g) Lack of / Absence of
amoral : ethics
anonymous : name
destitute : wealth
h) Manner or style
promenade: walk
prattle : speak
sashay : walk
i) Function or purpose
pencil: writing
tractor : plowing
hyphen : join
j) Action and significance
smile : happiness
frown : disappointment
bow : reverence
k) Pertaining to
didactic : teach
forensic : debate
ontology : being
l) Symbol and representation
period : stop
Trojan horse : deception
brackets : enclose
m) Different Connotations of words
interrogate : question
conspire : collaborate
bias : inspire
n) Cause and effect
sun : sunburn
overeating : indigestion
debt : overspending
o) Product and source
curtains : cloth
window : glass
fireplace : brick
p) Spatial order
epilogue : story
postscript : epistle
intermission : play
q) Time order
outline : essay
blueprint : house
crawling : walking
r) Worker and tool
welder : torch
musician : piano
artist : paintbrush
s) Worker and workplace
chef : kitchen
judge: courtroom
farmer : meadow
t) Worker and creation
artist : sketch
architecht : blueprint
composer : etude
u) Action to object
play : clarinet
incise : knife
drain : colander
8) Boost your vocabulary.
Analogies are probably the hardest type of question to improve on, as they depend on the inherent strength of your vocabulary. Other than trying to memorize a dictionary (which we do NOT recommend), there aren't many short-term ways to quickly learn hundreds or thousands of new words. A large vocabulary is built over time, usually by voracious reading.
This does not mean that it is hopeless, however. This website (www.IvyLeagueAdmission.com) includes the following lists:
a) the 180 most common words featured on the GRE (definitions plus illustrative sentences)
b) groups of related words
c) tricky lookalike words that testmakers love
d) the most common roots, prefixes and suffixes for GRE vocabulary words
We consider these lists valuable preparation for sentence completion and analogy test questions. Study this list each day during the weeks just before taking the GRE and learn as many new words as possible. We suggest the following plan of attack for defining words:
a) Define the stem word. If you don't know the precise definition of the word in capital letters, an approximate definition will probably be sufficient. Most words are built or derived from other words with which you may be more familiar:
Examples:
a) tempestuous Related Words temper
b) perturbation Related Word: perturbed
c) severance Related Word: sever
b) Put the word in context. When we speak, we use words in phrases in sentences, rather than in isolation. Yet words that we understand fully in sentences may appear unfamiliar when we view them out of context. When you see a word on the GRE, put it in a familiar context to better understand its meaning.
Examples:
a) savant "idiot savant" means genious
b) gratuitous "gratuitous violence" means unnecessary
c) requiem "requiem for a heavyweight" means a rest
c) Test the word for positive or negative connotations.
i) Any word that starts with "de-", "dis-" or "anti-" is usually negative. This includes degradation, discrepancy, debase, antipathy
ii) Words that include the concept of going up are usually positive, while those that include the concept of going down are usually negative.
Positive examples: elevate, ascend, adulation, illustrious
Negative examples: decline, suborn, derision, consecrate
d) Watch out for words that look similar, but have different meanings.
Examples: ambulance/ambulatory, suffer/suffrage, friend/fiend, platitude/gratitude,
inspired/insipid, vicious/viscous, noble/ignoble
e) Don't overlook rare meanings of words, as they are commonly used on the GRE. The parts of speech in an analogy problem will be consistent throughout the problem. If the given word is a verb, all of the answer choices will also be verbs. This helps you to quickly determine if the word is being used in a secondary sense, as common words have different meanings if they are used as verbs, nouns or adjectives.
Words that are commonly used as both nouns and verbs:
curb document table harbor
rent steep flower bolt
champion air bustle
10 Analogy Questions (w/ Solutions)
1. TRUSS: SUPPORT::
(A) calcium: bone
(B) fence: barrier
(C) tile: patio
(D) wood. burn
(E) tobacco: cigarette
2. REEL: TAPE ::
(A) ball: string
(B) turntable: record
(C) tire: wheel
(D) skein: yarn
(E) spool: thread
3. SHINGLE: ROOF::
(A) rind: melon
(B) armor: knight
(C) feather: wing
(D) patch: cloth
(E) canopy: bed
4. RHETORIC : ORATOR::
(A) legerdemain : magician
(B) baggage: immigrant
(C) justice: lawyer
(D) map: cartographer
(E) tractor: farmer
5. INDISPUTABLE: QUESTION ::
(A) unlikely: know
(B) amoral: perform
(C) incredible: prove
(D) immutable: change
(E) insoluble: submerge
6. UNSCATHED: DAMAGE ::
(A) ameliorated: improvement
(B) obliterated: invisibility
(C) rolled: flatness
(D) shaken: homogeneity
(E) arid: dampness
7. PROTRACTION: DURATION::
(A) extension: length
(B) retraction: instant
(C) corruption: truth
(D) taxation: wealth
(E) altercation: shape
8. PORTRAIT : CARICATURE::
(A) serialization: novel
(B) drama: musical
(C) theater: vaudeville
(D) saga: epic
(E) characterization : parody
9. STARS: GALAXY::
(A) cells: prison
(B) sand: dune
(C) nuclei: atom
(D) eggs : nest
(E) hair: head
10. ATROPHY : INACTIVITY::
(A) resistance : timidity
(B) frown : anger
(C) growth : youth
(D) rot : refrigeration
(E) debt : overspending
Solutions to Analogy Questions
1. B is correct. A truss is used as a support.
Likewise, a fence is used as a barrier.
2. E is correct. A reel is an object that tape winds around.
Likewise, a spool is an object that thread winds around.
3. C is correct. Many shingles make up the outer covering of a rook.
Likewise, many feathers make up the outer covering of a wing.
4. A is correct. Rhetoric is a skill used by an orator.
Likewise, legerdemain is a skill used by a magician.
5. D is correct. Something indisputable cannot be questioned.
Likewise, something immutable cannot be changed.
6. E is correct. Somthing unscathed lacks damage.
Likewise, something arid lacks dampness.
7. A is correct. A protraction is an increase in duration.
Likewise, an extension is an increase in length.
8. E is correct. An exaggerated portrait is a caricature.
Likewise, an exaggerated characterization is a parody.
9. B is correct. Stars make up a galaxy.
Likewise, sand makes up a dune.
10. E is correct. Atrophy is caused by inactivity.
Likewise, debt is caused by overspending.
Antonyms on the GRE
The GRE includes 9 antonym questions in the Verbal section of the test. Each question will include a word or phrase in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. You must choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word in capital letters.
Antonyms are probably the hardest type of question to improve on, as they depend on the inherent strength of your vocabulary. Other than trying to memorize a dictionary (which we do NOT recommend), there aren't many short-term ways to quickly learn hundreds or thousands of new words. A large vocabulary is built over time, usually by voracious reading.
This does not mean that it is hopeless, however. This site includes a list of the 180 most common words featured on the GRE. We define each word and use it in context. We also include a list of helpful prefixes, roots and suffixes. We consider these lists valuable preparation for both the antonym and analogy test questions. Study them each day during the weeks just before taking the GRE and learn as many new words as possible.
We suggest the following plan of attack for antonym questions:
1) Define the stem word. If you don't know the precise definition of the word in capital letters, an approximate definition will probably be sufficient. Most words are built or derived from other words with which you may be more familiar:
Examples:
a) tempestuous Related Words temper
b) perturbation Related Word: perturbed
c) severance Related Word: sever
2) Put the word in context. When we speak, we use words in phrases in sentences, rather than in isolation. Yet words that we understand fully in sentences may appear unfamiliar when we view them in isolation. When you see a word on the GRE, put it in context to better understand its meaning.
Examples:
a) savant "idiot savant" means genious
b) gratuitous "gratuitous violence" means unnecessary
c) requiem "requiem for a heavyweight" means a rest
3) Test the word for positive or negative connotations.
a) Any word that starts with "de-", "dis-" or "anti-" is usually negative. This includes degradation, discrepancy, debase, antipathy
b) Words that include the concept of going up are usually positive, while those that include the concept of going down are usually negative.
Positive examples: elevate, ascend, adulation, illustrious
Negative examples: decline, suborn, derision, consecrate
4) Watch out for words that look similar, but have different meanings.
Examples: ambulance/ambulatory, suffer/suffrage, friend/fiend, platitude/gratitude,
inspired/insipid, vicious/viscous, noble/ignoble
5) Don't overlook rare meanings of words, as they are commonly used on the GRE. The parts of speech in an antonym problem will be consistent throughout the problem. If the given word is a verb, all of the answer choices will also be verbs. This helps you to quickly determine if the word is being used in a secondary sense, as common words have differnet meanings if they are used as verbs, nouns or adjectives.
Words that are commonly used as both nouns and verbs:
curb document table harbor
rent steep flower bolt
champion air bustle
6) Define its opposite and predict an answer. Whenever possible, you should have an idea of what you're looking for before you check the answer choices. Consciously predicting an answerwill reduce the chances that you'll select a choice that's a synonym of the stem word, rather than an antonym.
7) Find the answer choice that best matches your prediction. Check all the choices for the best fit. If necessary, consider alternative definitions for the stem word.
8) Use guessing strategies, if necessary.
a) Eliminate answer choices that have no clear opposite.
b) If two (or more) choices have the same meaning, eliminate both.
c) Use the "sense" of a word to eliminate probable wrong answers: if the stem is positive, the correct answer will be negative, and vice versa.
Exercises: 10 Antonym Questions (with explanations)
1) METTLE:
(A) ad hoc
(B) perdition
(C) woe
(D) trepidation
(E) apathy
2) ABRIDGE:
(A) distend
(B) assail
(C) unfetter
(D) enfeeble
(E) prove
3. FANATICISM:
(A) delusion
(B) fascism
(C) remorse
(D) cynicism
(E) indifference
4. MUTABILITY:
(A) simplicity
(B) apprehension
(C) frailty
(D) maverick
(E) tenacity
5. INEXORABLE:
(A) surrepitious
(B) tractable
(C) jaded
(D) ionoclast
(E) garish
6. UNCOUTH:
(A) urbane
(B) travail
(C) sentient
(D) prevaricate
(E) maladroit
7. VOCIFERATE:
(A) turgid
(B) listen
(C) resurgent
(D) rapacity
(E) vilify
8. DISPERSE:
(A) account for
(B) gather up
(C) apply to
(D) concentrate on
(E) take apart
9. VENERATE:
(A) detest
(B) disrespect
(C) renew
(D) uncover
(E) deserve
10. OBLIVIOUS:
(A) visible
(B) subtle
(C) active
(D) intelligent
(E) mindful
Answer Key: Antonyms
1. D is correct. Mettle means character or courage. The opposite is trepidation, which means fear.
2. A is correct. Abridge means to shorten. The opposite is distend, which means to swell or protrude.
3. E is correct. Fanaticism means overenthusiastic. The opposite is indifferent.
4. E is correct. Mutability means changing. Tenacity is the opposite.
5. B is correct. Inexorable means rigid or uncompromising. The opposite is tractable, or yielding.
6. A is correct. Uncouth means crude. The opposite is urbane, or sophisticated.
7. B is correct. Vociferate means to shout. The opposite is to listen or be silent.
8. B is correct. Disperse means to scatter. The opposite is to gather up.
9. B is correct. Venerate is to treat with respect. The opposite is disrespect.
10. B is correct. Oblivious means unaware. The opposite is mindful.
The GRE includes 9 antonym questions in the Verbal section of the test. Each question will include a word or phrase in capital letters, followed by five lettered words or phrases. You must choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word in capital letters.
Antonyms are probably the hardest type of question to improve on, as they depend on the inherent strength of your vocabulary. Other than trying to memorize a dictionary (which we do NOT recommend), there aren't many short-term ways to quickly learn hundreds or thousands of new words. A large vocabulary is built over time, usually by voracious reading.
This does not mean that it is hopeless, however. This site includes a list of the 180 most common words featured on the GRE. We define each word and use it in context. We also include a list of helpful prefixes, roots and suffixes. We consider these lists valuable preparation for both the antonym and analogy test questions. Study them each day during the weeks just before taking the GRE and learn as many new words as possible.
We suggest the following plan of attack for antonym questions:
1) Define the stem word. If you don't know the precise definition of the word in capital letters, an approximate definition will probably be sufficient. Most words are built or derived from other words with which you may be more familiar:
Examples:
a) tempestuous Related Words temper
b) perturbation Related Word: perturbed
c) severance Related Word: sever
2) Put the word in context. When we speak, we use words in phrases in sentences, rather than in isolation. Yet words that we understand fully in sentences may appear unfamiliar when we view them in isolation. When you see a word on the GRE, put it in context to better understand its meaning.
Examples:
a) savant "idiot savant" means genious
b) gratuitous "gratuitous violence" means unnecessary
c) requiem "requiem for a heavyweight" means a rest
3) Test the word for positive or negative connotations.
a) Any word that starts with "de-", "dis-" or "anti-" is usually negative. This includes degradation, discrepancy, debase, antipathy
b) Words that include the concept of going up are usually positive, while those that include the concept of going down are usually negative.
Positive examples: elevate, ascend, adulation, illustrious
Negative examples: decline, suborn, derision, consecrate
4) Watch out for words that look similar, but have different meanings.
Examples: ambulance/ambulatory, suffer/suffrage, friend/fiend, platitude/gratitude,
inspired/insipid, vicious/viscous, noble/ignoble
5) Don't overlook rare meanings of words, as they are commonly used on the GRE. The parts of speech in an antonym problem will be consistent throughout the problem. If the given word is a verb, all of the answer choices will also be verbs. This helps you to quickly determine if the word is being used in a secondary sense, as common words have differnet meanings if they are used as verbs, nouns or adjectives.
Words that are commonly used as both nouns and verbs:
curb document table harbor
rent steep flower bolt
champion air bustle
6) Define its opposite and predict an answer. Whenever possible, you should have an idea of what you're looking for before you check the answer choices. Consciously predicting an answerwill reduce the chances that you'll select a choice that's a synonym of the stem word, rather than an antonym.
7) Find the answer choice that best matches your prediction. Check all the choices for the best fit. If necessary, consider alternative definitions for the stem word.
8) Use guessing strategies, if necessary.
a) Eliminate answer choices that have no clear opposite.
b) If two (or more) choices have the same meaning, eliminate both.
c) Use the "sense" of a word to eliminate probable wrong answers: if the stem is positive, the correct answer will be negative, and vice versa.
Exercises: 10 Antonym Questions (with explanations)
1) METTLE:
(A) ad hoc
(B) perdition
(C) woe
(D) trepidation
(E) apathy
2) ABRIDGE:
(A) distend
(B) assail
(C) unfetter
(D) enfeeble
(E) prove
3. FANATICISM:
(A) delusion
(B) fascism
(C) remorse
(D) cynicism
(E) indifference
4. MUTABILITY:
(A) simplicity
(B) apprehension
(C) frailty
(D) maverick
(E) tenacity
5. INEXORABLE:
(A) surrepitious
(B) tractable
(C) jaded
(D) ionoclast
(E) garish
6. UNCOUTH:
(A) urbane
(B) travail
(C) sentient
(D) prevaricate
(E) maladroit
7. VOCIFERATE:
(A) turgid
(B) listen
(C) resurgent
(D) rapacity
(E) vilify
8. DISPERSE:
(A) account for
(B) gather up
(C) apply to
(D) concentrate on
(E) take apart
9. VENERATE:
(A) detest
(B) disrespect
(C) renew
(D) uncover
(E) deserve
10. OBLIVIOUS:
(A) visible
(B) subtle
(C) active
(D) intelligent
(E) mindful
Answer Key: Antonyms
1. D is correct. Mettle means character or courage. The opposite is trepidation, which means fear.
2. A is correct. Abridge means to shorten. The opposite is distend, which means to swell or protrude.
3. E is correct. Fanaticism means overenthusiastic. The opposite is indifferent.
4. E is correct. Mutability means changing. Tenacity is the opposite.
5. B is correct. Inexorable means rigid or uncompromising. The opposite is tractable, or yielding.
6. A is correct. Uncouth means crude. The opposite is urbane, or sophisticated.
7. B is correct. Vociferate means to shout. The opposite is to listen or be silent.
8. B is correct. Disperse means to scatter. The opposite is to gather up.
9. B is correct. Venerate is to treat with respect. The opposite is disrespect.
10. B is correct. Oblivious means unaware. The opposite is mindful.
Sentence Completion on the GRE!!
Sentence Completion on GRE
The Verbal section of the GRE will contain approximately 6 sentence completion questions. Each includes a sentence with either one or two blanks. You must select the correct word (or pair of words) to best complete the sentence. The sentences are not biased toward any particular field of study and you will NOT need any specific knowledge of the subject being discussed. Sentence completion questions are intentionally structured to provide all the clues you need to identify the missing word(s).
The directions for the section are:
Directions: Each of the following questions begins with a sentence that has either one or two blanks. The blanks indicate that a piece of the sentence is missing. Each sentence is followed by five answer choices that consist of words or phrases. Select the answer choice thatcompletes the sentence best.
Example:
After a hectic week in the city, as a relief from ______ pressures, Carrie plans to _____ on her long weekend.
(A) inveterate -- pique
(B) urban -- rusticate
(C) pent -- prate
(D) neolithic -- venerate
(E) laconic -- slake
Solution: Choice B is correct. The key word "city" indicates that the first word must relate to urban life. The trigger for the second word is long weekend. We know that Carrie wants to get away from the city, making "rusticate" a good choice.
Example:
After surgery for my knee injury, my doctor gave me painkillers that made me _____ and _____.
(A) articulate -- copious
(B) doltish -- overt
(C) autocratic -- congruent
(D) torpid -- phlegmatic
(E) ludicrous -- remiss
Solution: The first key word in this is "pain killers", which are known to induce drowsiness. The second key word is "and", indicating that the two words we seek are synonyms.
Tips & Strategies for Sentence Completion Questions
1) Identify the crucial clues in the sentence. These sentences are never vague; each will include adjectives or descriptive terms that indicate the meaning of the missing word.
2) Look for what is directly implied or stated by the sentence. Each presents a complete thought and the missing words support that thought.
3) Look for structural words that will help you find the right answer:
a) If the second part of the sentence supports or elaborates on the first part, it will invariably include words like:
and, similarly, in addition, since, also, thus, because, likewise, consequently
b) If the second part of the sentece deviates or contradicts the first part, it will inevitably include words like:
but, despite, yet, however, unless, rather, although, while, nevertheless
In statements with two blanks, these structural words help to determine whether the two words are synonyms or antonyms. Use the relationship between the two words ro help select the correct answer choice.
4) Quickly eliminate choices that are not grammatically correct.
5) Always check all five answer choices. Sometimes more than one choice will theoretically "fit" the sentence, but one fits better than the others. Your job is to identify the BEST choice.
6) Don't be intimidated by odd or unusal words. The sentence completion questions aren't designed to test vocabulary, yet they will often contain somewhat difficult words. Rely on the content of the sentence to determine their meaning. In nearly all problems, the definition of the word is given or strongly implied in the sentence. In sentences with two blanks, you will usually know the meaning of at least one of the two words in each answer choice. This is usually enough to help you accept or reject the answer choice.
7) If a sentence is long, meandering or otherwise complex, paraphrase it to get the gist. Consider the author's tone or attitude. Then, search the answer choices for the correct words.
8) Always read your choice back into the original sentence to verify that it makes sense.
9) Always work with the easier blank first. Often, you can eliminate one or two answer choices simply because the "easy" word in the pair doesn't fit.
10) If you can't predict an answer, quickly plug the five answer choices into the sentence. Many times, you can eliminate a few choices that don't "sound correct" in context.
Ten Sentence Correction Questions (with Solutions)
1. Many medical experts believe that the origin of Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD) is _____, while others believe it is ______.
(A) contiguous -- environmental
(B) congenital --- environmental
(C) congenital -- deleterious
(D) contagious -- pathological
(E) exogenous -- celestial
2. The fourth grade teacher taught her students to ______ thoroughly when eating to enable proper _______.
(A) rankle -- temerity
(B) mitigate -- digestion
(C) transmute -- veneration
(D) query -- progeny
(E) masticate -- digestion
3. The state attorney began his lecture by explaining that ______ is a phase of the study of ______.
(A) nihilism -- gynecology
(B) hypertension -- etymology
(C) recidivism -- criminology
(D) altruism -- paleontology
(E) hallucination -- chivalry
4. The students _______ until there was no choice but to ______ a desperate, last-minute solution.
(A) berated -- try
(B) delayed -- envision
(C) procrastinated -- implement
(D) debated -- maintain
(E) filibustered -- reject
5. Working with an unbelievably _______ budget and an impossible schedule, the wedding planner somehow arranged an event that _________ the guests with its beauty and style.
(A) low -- disappointed
(B) inflated -- distracted
(C) uneven -- amused
(D) disproportionate -- appalled
(E) inadequate -- surprised
6. Because members of the ______ family are ______, farmers must grow grass.
(A) bovine -- herbivorous
(B) anthropoid -- adamant
(C) conduit -- nocturnal
(D) incarnadine -- nocturnal
(E) heretic -- herbivorous
7. When the law clerk got his first job, his novice ______ led to an embarrassing ______.
(A) collusion -- consanguinity
(B) synthesis -- cordovan
(C) colophon -- temerity
(D) ineptitude -- imbroglio
(E) chauvinism -- quirk
8. Because of her ______ nature, the scientist avoided any job that she feared might be a travail.
(A) impudent
(B) insolent
(C) eminent
(D) indolent
(E) imminent
9. Whenever I see Wade's long face, I know that he is feeling ______ and ______.
(A) scintillating -- verbose
(B) quiescent -- succint
(C) lugubrious -- lachrymose
(D) reviled -- providential
(E) providential -- rubicund
10. Psychologists insist that all people, even the most _____ and ______ , have varying degrees of extreme emotions.
(A) brackish --- mature
(B) sylvan -- intellectual
(C) celestial -- civilized
(D) beneficent -- stable
(E) defunct - healthy
Solutions to Sentence Completion Questions
1. Choice B is correct. We know from the context of the sentence that we are seeking opposite words relating to the origin of a diease.
2. Choice E is correct. Mastication is the same as chewing, which enables digestion.
3. Choice C is correct. Recidivism, or repeating an offense, is a common problem in criminology.
4. Choice C is correct. While all of the answer choices fit the blanks, Choice c is best. The clues in the sentence are "last-minute" and "desperate".
5. Choice E is correct. The clues in the sentence are "unbelievable" and "impossible". We know the first word must be negative. We also know from the words "somehow", "beauty" and "style" that the second word is positive.
6. Choice A is correct. The key words are "grass" and "farmers", indicating that the correct words are animals that eat grass.
7. Choice D is correct. The key words "novice" and "embarrassing" mean our correct words are both negative. The best choice is D, as the first wrd relates to newness and inexperience.
8. Choice B is correct. The correct word means the opposite of "travail", which is lazy.
9. Choice C is correct. The correct words are synonyms for sad and tearful.
10. Choice D is correct. From the word "even", the correct terms must be the opposite of "extreme".
The Verbal section of the GRE will contain approximately 6 sentence completion questions. Each includes a sentence with either one or two blanks. You must select the correct word (or pair of words) to best complete the sentence. The sentences are not biased toward any particular field of study and you will NOT need any specific knowledge of the subject being discussed. Sentence completion questions are intentionally structured to provide all the clues you need to identify the missing word(s).
The directions for the section are:
Directions: Each of the following questions begins with a sentence that has either one or two blanks. The blanks indicate that a piece of the sentence is missing. Each sentence is followed by five answer choices that consist of words or phrases. Select the answer choice thatcompletes the sentence best.
Example:
After a hectic week in the city, as a relief from ______ pressures, Carrie plans to _____ on her long weekend.
(A) inveterate -- pique
(B) urban -- rusticate
(C) pent -- prate
(D) neolithic -- venerate
(E) laconic -- slake
Solution: Choice B is correct. The key word "city" indicates that the first word must relate to urban life. The trigger for the second word is long weekend. We know that Carrie wants to get away from the city, making "rusticate" a good choice.
Example:
After surgery for my knee injury, my doctor gave me painkillers that made me _____ and _____.
(A) articulate -- copious
(B) doltish -- overt
(C) autocratic -- congruent
(D) torpid -- phlegmatic
(E) ludicrous -- remiss
Solution: The first key word in this is "pain killers", which are known to induce drowsiness. The second key word is "and", indicating that the two words we seek are synonyms.
Tips & Strategies for Sentence Completion Questions
1) Identify the crucial clues in the sentence. These sentences are never vague; each will include adjectives or descriptive terms that indicate the meaning of the missing word.
2) Look for what is directly implied or stated by the sentence. Each presents a complete thought and the missing words support that thought.
3) Look for structural words that will help you find the right answer:
a) If the second part of the sentence supports or elaborates on the first part, it will invariably include words like:
and, similarly, in addition, since, also, thus, because, likewise, consequently
b) If the second part of the sentece deviates or contradicts the first part, it will inevitably include words like:
but, despite, yet, however, unless, rather, although, while, nevertheless
In statements with two blanks, these structural words help to determine whether the two words are synonyms or antonyms. Use the relationship between the two words ro help select the correct answer choice.
4) Quickly eliminate choices that are not grammatically correct.
5) Always check all five answer choices. Sometimes more than one choice will theoretically "fit" the sentence, but one fits better than the others. Your job is to identify the BEST choice.
6) Don't be intimidated by odd or unusal words. The sentence completion questions aren't designed to test vocabulary, yet they will often contain somewhat difficult words. Rely on the content of the sentence to determine their meaning. In nearly all problems, the definition of the word is given or strongly implied in the sentence. In sentences with two blanks, you will usually know the meaning of at least one of the two words in each answer choice. This is usually enough to help you accept or reject the answer choice.
7) If a sentence is long, meandering or otherwise complex, paraphrase it to get the gist. Consider the author's tone or attitude. Then, search the answer choices for the correct words.
8) Always read your choice back into the original sentence to verify that it makes sense.
9) Always work with the easier blank first. Often, you can eliminate one or two answer choices simply because the "easy" word in the pair doesn't fit.
10) If you can't predict an answer, quickly plug the five answer choices into the sentence. Many times, you can eliminate a few choices that don't "sound correct" in context.
Ten Sentence Correction Questions (with Solutions)
1. Many medical experts believe that the origin of Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD) is _____, while others believe it is ______.
(A) contiguous -- environmental
(B) congenital --- environmental
(C) congenital -- deleterious
(D) contagious -- pathological
(E) exogenous -- celestial
2. The fourth grade teacher taught her students to ______ thoroughly when eating to enable proper _______.
(A) rankle -- temerity
(B) mitigate -- digestion
(C) transmute -- veneration
(D) query -- progeny
(E) masticate -- digestion
3. The state attorney began his lecture by explaining that ______ is a phase of the study of ______.
(A) nihilism -- gynecology
(B) hypertension -- etymology
(C) recidivism -- criminology
(D) altruism -- paleontology
(E) hallucination -- chivalry
4. The students _______ until there was no choice but to ______ a desperate, last-minute solution.
(A) berated -- try
(B) delayed -- envision
(C) procrastinated -- implement
(D) debated -- maintain
(E) filibustered -- reject
5. Working with an unbelievably _______ budget and an impossible schedule, the wedding planner somehow arranged an event that _________ the guests with its beauty and style.
(A) low -- disappointed
(B) inflated -- distracted
(C) uneven -- amused
(D) disproportionate -- appalled
(E) inadequate -- surprised
6. Because members of the ______ family are ______, farmers must grow grass.
(A) bovine -- herbivorous
(B) anthropoid -- adamant
(C) conduit -- nocturnal
(D) incarnadine -- nocturnal
(E) heretic -- herbivorous
7. When the law clerk got his first job, his novice ______ led to an embarrassing ______.
(A) collusion -- consanguinity
(B) synthesis -- cordovan
(C) colophon -- temerity
(D) ineptitude -- imbroglio
(E) chauvinism -- quirk
8. Because of her ______ nature, the scientist avoided any job that she feared might be a travail.
(A) impudent
(B) insolent
(C) eminent
(D) indolent
(E) imminent
9. Whenever I see Wade's long face, I know that he is feeling ______ and ______.
(A) scintillating -- verbose
(B) quiescent -- succint
(C) lugubrious -- lachrymose
(D) reviled -- providential
(E) providential -- rubicund
10. Psychologists insist that all people, even the most _____ and ______ , have varying degrees of extreme emotions.
(A) brackish --- mature
(B) sylvan -- intellectual
(C) celestial -- civilized
(D) beneficent -- stable
(E) defunct - healthy
Solutions to Sentence Completion Questions
1. Choice B is correct. We know from the context of the sentence that we are seeking opposite words relating to the origin of a diease.
2. Choice E is correct. Mastication is the same as chewing, which enables digestion.
3. Choice C is correct. Recidivism, or repeating an offense, is a common problem in criminology.
4. Choice C is correct. While all of the answer choices fit the blanks, Choice c is best. The clues in the sentence are "last-minute" and "desperate".
5. Choice E is correct. The clues in the sentence are "unbelievable" and "impossible". We know the first word must be negative. We also know from the words "somehow", "beauty" and "style" that the second word is positive.
6. Choice A is correct. The key words are "grass" and "farmers", indicating that the correct words are animals that eat grass.
7. Choice D is correct. The key words "novice" and "embarrassing" mean our correct words are both negative. The best choice is D, as the first wrd relates to newness and inexperience.
8. Choice B is correct. The correct word means the opposite of "travail", which is lazy.
9. Choice C is correct. The correct words are synonyms for sad and tearful.
10. Choice D is correct. From the word "even", the correct terms must be the opposite of "extreme".
Reading Comprehension Section(GRE).!!
Reading Comprehension of GRE!!
The reading comprehension section on the GRE contains four written passages (each between 200 - 500 words long) followed by a series of questions. Passages can be about any subject, but the most common themes are politics, history, science, business and the humanities. Most readers find the passages difficult because the subject matter is dry and obscure. Many are written in the passive voice and contain unpronouncable words. By design, no academic background offers an "edge" or greater likelihood of success in this section of the test. The material is purposely selected to test your reading comprehension, rather than your understanding of a specific subject area. This ensures:
a) the passages do not require the reader to have any specialized knowledge in the subject area
b) everything you need to answer the questions is presented in the passage
The passages always use a formal, compact style. They are excerpted from academic journal articles, but are not printed verbatim. The original article is heavily edited to just one-quarter to one-third of its original length, retaining the formal style of the piece, but removing the introductory material, fillers and transitional phrases. Worse, passages are untitled and often start in the middle of an explanation or discussion, so the reader must jump in with no clear point of reference.
The purpose of the section is to determine if you can quickly identify the structure, objective and logic of a long, difficult passage and apply the author's premise to new situations. To succeed in the rigid timeframe (35 minutes), students must read with a different mindset than they use in most traditional coursework.
Here are the exact directions used on the exam:
Directions: Each selection in this test is followed by several questions. After reading the selection, choose the best response to each question and mark it on your answer sheet. Your replies are to be based on what is stated or implied in the selection.
Reading styles are subjective, as what works for one person may not work for another. Success with these passages depends on your individual style. We can't recommend speed reading, which is designed for ordinary, non-technical material. Because passages are so dense, you can not skim over a single sentence without missing key information. You should read faster than normally, but not to the point that your comprehension suffers. Experiment to find your optimum pace. Some guides recommend that you read the questions first, then go back and read the passage. Sadly, few students will have enough time for that approach. In some cases, the questions and answer choices are longer than the actual passage!
We recommend that you take a few seconds at the beginning of the section and scope out the passages. Read the first line of each and determine which will be easiest for you and which will be hardest. Do the easiest one first. Don't waste precious time on a dense, difficult passage. Rack up as many "easy" points as possible first, then return to the hardest questions.
The Five Questions
The key to performing well on the passages is not your particular reading technique, but in your familiarity with the types of possible questions. In general, there are only five question types explored on the reading comprehension test:
a) Main Idea
b) Details
c) Organization
d) Extension / Application
e) Attitude / Tone
As you become familiar with the different question types, you will gain an intuitive sense for the places from which they are likely to be drawn. You can then approach these questions quickly and efficiently. Generally, the order in which the questions are asked corresponds to the order in which the main issues are presented in the passage. Early questions should correspond to information given early in the passage, and so on.
a) Main Idea Questions
Main idea questions test your ability to identify and understand an author's intent. The main idea is usually stated:
i) in the last (occasionally the first) sentence of the first paragraph
ii) in last sentence of the entire passage.
Main idea questions are usually the first questions asked in the question set.
Some common main idea questions are:
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
The primary purpose of the passage is to ...
In the passage, the author's primary concern is to discuss. ..
Which of the following would be an excellent title for the passage?
Main idea questions are usually not difficult. If you don't catch the main idea after your first reading, review the first and last sentence of each paragraph. These will give you a quick overview of the passage.
Because main idea questions are relatively easy, the test writers try to obscure the correct answer by surrounding it with close answer-choices that either overstate or understate the author's main point. Answers that stress specifics tend to understate the main idea, while choices that go beyond the scope of the passage tend to overstate the main idea. The correct answer to a main idea question will summarize the author's argument, yet be neither too specific nor too broad. In most cases, the main idea of a passage is found in the first paragraph or in the final sentence of the entire passage.
b) Detail Questions
Detail questions refer to a minor point or to incidental information in the passage, but not to the author's main point. These questions take various forms:
According to the passage. ..
In line 25, the author mentions....for the purpose of ...
The passage suggests that which one of the following would....
The answer to a detail question must refer directly to a statement in the passage, not to something implied by it. When answering a detail question, find the point in the passage from which the question is drawn. Don't rely on memory, as many tactics are used with these questions to confuse test takers. Not only must the correct answer refer directly to a statement in the passage, it must refer to the relevant statement. The correct answer will be surrounded by wrong choices which refer directly to the passage but don't address the question. These choices can be tempting because they tend to be quite close to the actual answer.
Once you locate the sentence to which the question refers, you must read a few sentences before and after it to put the question in context. If a question refers to line 30, the information needed to answer it can occur anywhere from line 25 to 35. Even if you spot the answer in line 28, you should still read a few more lines to ensure you have the proper perspective.
c) Organization of the Passage
Because they are derived from diverse subject areas, passages can cover an infinite number of topics.
While main idea questions ask the purpose of the piece, organization questions ask how the author presents his ideas. While authors can theoretically use an endless number of writing techniques, most test passages use one of just three organizational styles:
i) Compare and contrast two positions
This technique simply develops two ideas and then explains why one is better than the other. Some common comparison phrases include "by contrast" or "similarly".
Typical questions for these types of passages are:
According to the passage, a central distinction between a woman's position and a man's is:
In which of the following ways does the author imply that birds and reptiles are similar?
ii) Show cause and effect
The author demonstrates that a particular cause leads to a specific result. Sometimes this method introduces a sequence of causes and effects: A causes B, which causes C, which causes D, etc. Hence B is both the effect of A and the cause of C.
iii) State a position and then offer supporting evidence
This technique is common with opinionated passages. Many authors prefer the reverse order, where the supporting evidence is presented first and then the position or conclusion is stated.
Following are some typical questions for these types of passages:
According to the author, which of the following is required for one to become proficient with a computer?
Which of the following does the author cite as evidence that the species is dangerous?
d) Extension / Application Questions
Extension questions require you to go beyond what is stated in the passage, asking you to draw an inference, to make a conclusion, or to identify one of the author's tacit assumptions. You may be asked to draw a conclusion based on the ideas or facts presented:
It can be inferred from the passage that. ..
The passage suggests that. ..
From this we can conclude that.....
Since extension questions require you to go beyond the passage, the correct answer must say more than what is stated in the passage. The correct answer to an extension question will not require a quantum leap in thought, but it will add significantly to the ideas presented in the passage.
While extension questions ask you to apply what you learned from the passage to derive new information about the same subject, application questions go one step further, asking you to apply what you have learned from the passage to a different or hypothetical situation.
The following are common application questions:
Which one of the following is the most likely source of the passage?
Which of the following is an appropriate title for this piece?
Which one of the following actions would be most likely to have the same effect as the author's actions?
The author would most likely agree with which one of the following statements?
Which one of the following sentences would the author be most likely to use to complete the last paragraph of the passage?
To answer an application question, consider the author's perspective. Ask yourself:
what is he arguing for?
what might make his argument stronger?
what might make it weaker?
Because these questions go beyond the passage, they tend to be the most difficult. They require you to pick up subtleties of the author's attitude.
e) Attitude / Tone Questions
Tone questions discuss the writer's attitude or perspective. Does he feel positive, negative or neutral? Does he give his own opinion or objectively present those of others? Before reading the answer choices, decide whether the writer's tone is positive, negative or neutral. If you didn't get a feel for the writer's attitude on the first reading, check the adjectives used (they nearly always have a strong positive or negative connotation).
Beware of answer choices that contain extreme emotions. Passages are usually taken from academic journals, where strong emotions are considered inappropriate. The writers usually display opinions that are considered and reasonable, not spontaneous or off-the-wall. The tone or attitude of a passage closely parallels the main idea. If the author's intent is to explain the reasons for abolishing slavery, the tone is explanatory or encouraging, not negative or discouraging. The correct answer will also be indisputable. The test writers NEVER allow the correct answer to be vague, controversial or grammatically questionable.
Key Words That Identify Potential Questions
Each passage contains about 400 - 700 words and only a few questions, ensuring that you will NOT be tested on most of the specific details. Your best reading strategy is to identify the places from which questions will most likely be drawn and concentrate your attention there.
Key, pivotal words indicate contrast, warning that the author is about to either make a U-turn or introduce a counter-premise (a concession to a minor point that weakens his case). Common pivotal words include:
But Although In Contrast Even though
However Yet Nonetheless Except
Despite Nevertheless
These words show where the author changes direction, providing natural places for questions to be drawn. The test writers form questions at these junctures to test whether you followed the author's line of reasoning or got lost. Sentences containing pivotal words nearly ALWAYS contain the answer to a test question.
Handling Incorrect Answer Choices
One of the most difficult tasks in writing test questions is composing tempting, incorrect answer choices. In most cases, only two of the five choices will have any real merit. We've observed several common threads in the wrong answer choices that most test takers should consider. Be on the look-out for the following:
a) For main idea questions, incorrect choices use the wrong verb and focus on supporting details, rather than the main point of the passage. Incorrect choices also tend to either overstate or understate the author's view. Beware of extreme choices, as they are often wrong. Correct answers tend to be rational, measured responses. Other tempting incorrect answer choice are "half-right, half-wrong", incorporating some of the author's view, but not a complete match. Other wrong answers pick a point of view that is inconcistent with the author's.
b) On detail questions, incorrect answer choices distort the author's words or are exact opposites of the correct answer.
c) For inference questions, incorrect choices distort the passage's ideas and go beyond the scope of the passage. For application questions, wrong choices are not parallel or analagous to the situation in the passage.
d) Incorrect tone answers are overly emotional or the opposite of the correct answer. Some incorrect answers are odd combinations of adjectives that make no sense in real world applications, such as "detached ambivalence", "enlightened apathy", and "muffled denial".
e) Sometimes incorrect answers are logically wrong. They misrepresent the author's purpose or focus on the "what" rather than the "why" of the detail.
f) Watch for unusual or uncommon usage of words. Students sometimes overlook points in passages because a familiar word is used in an unfamiliar manner. An example is champion. As a noun, champion means a hero or accomplished person. Yet, a a verb, champion means to support or advocate.
g) Be wary of extreme answers that contain "all or nothing" buzzwords such as must, always, impossible, never, cannot, each, every, totally, all, solely and only. Few passages will be written in such an absolute tone.
Two Sample Reading Comprehension Passage (and Solutions)
Now we will apply all the methods we have learned to two test passages. To parallel the timing of the actual test, spend about 10 minutes on each passage.
Passage 1
Among the several hundred million cells that comprise the wondrously complex
human body, and thus to be theoretically detectable in lab tests and in
electron photomicrographs, a tiny fraction, no more than a few hundred, belong
to a curious subclass whose luminiscence has a wavelength distribution so unique that
5 it long defied explanation. Such systems luminisce strongly in the visible region of the
spectrum, but some of them do so even more strongly at both shorter and longer
wavelengths: in the ultraviolet region and in the infrared regions.
10 This odd distribution of luminiscence is best explained by the pairing
of a giant red blood cell and an intensely small white blood cell that is virtually
in contact with its larger companion as the two travel around a common center.
Such objects have become known as Clinging cells. On photographic plates
only the giant cell can be discerned, but evidence for the existence of the
15 tiny companion has now been supplied by magnifying instruments capable
of detecting ultraviolet luminiscence at wavelengths that are absorbed by the body's
heat and therefore cannot be detected by typical analytical instruments.
The spectra of Clinging cells indicate that the giant red blood cell is surrounded by
20 very thin lipid filaments. The existence of the lipid filaments marked such objects as
being unique several decades before clinical observations finally identified the
lipid as the luminiscence from the tiny companion white blood cell. Clinging cells
also flare up in outbursts indicating the ejection of material in the form of a shell
or a ring, reminiscent of the recurrent circulation of hormonal cells. Clinging cells may
25 therefore represent a transitory phase in the evolution of certain types of hormonal
systems in which there is a substantial transfer of matter from the larger partner
to the smaller.
The exact evolutionary course that turns a typical blood cell system into a clinging one is
30 a matter of conjecture. The comparatively small number of known Clinging cells
in our bodies suggests that if all binaries of modest mass normally pass through
a clinging phase in their evolution, the phase must be extremely brief, perhaps
as short as a millisecond.
1. The author's primary purpose in the passage is to
(A) demonstrate that most hormonal systems were at one time clinging
(B) dismiss current knowledge of Clinging cells as overly speculative
(C) describe Clinging cells as a distinct type of cell system
(D) present evidence that hormonal systems are formed from tiny white blood cells
(E) compare characteristics of giant red blood cells and tiny white blood cells
2. The passage implies that Clinging cell systems differ from other hormonal systems
in that the former
(A) display luminiscence patterns different from those of most hormonal systems
(B) contain two cells that revolve around a common center
(C) possess far greater mass than other hormonal systems
(D) are more common in our bodies than other hormonal systems
(E) are the only hormonal systems that can be detected by electron microscopes
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about "the luminiscence"
mentioned in line 22?
(A) It causes certain large red blood cells cells to appear tiny to observers.
(B) It was incorrectly associated with hormonal cells in our bodies.
(C) It interferes with the clarity of photographs of most hormonal systems.
(D) It corresponds to the visible region of the light spectrum.
(E) It could not be positively identified from phtomicrograph observations.
4. According to the passage, the exchange of matter within a Clinging cell system
is believed to be a process in which
(A) cell grows in mass at the expense of the other
(B) the mass of each cell remains fairly stable
(C) the mass of both cells declines
(D) both cells absorb matter emitted by other nearby cells
(E) both cells gradually return to an earlier singular state
5. The assumption that the Clinging cell phase in the evolution of some hormonal
systems "must be extremely brief " (line ) is most likely based on the fact that
(A) hormones are rapidly ejected from clinging systems
(B) few Clinging cells have been detected in our bodies
(C) the cells in a clinging pair are in close proximity to each other
(D) Clinging cells vary considerably in size from one another
(E) the outbursts of Clinging cells resemble those of hormonal cells
Passage 2
Nearly forty years ago, former President Kennedy signed
the National Reproductive Policy Act, this nation's first major federal
law addressing federal reproductive freedom. Although the nation has
now witnessed almost forty years of continuing debate
5 about abortion freedom law, a relatively new element has recent-
ly entered the controversy: the use of partial birth procedures and
their high risks in facilitating voluntary third trimester pregnancy
terminations.
10 Before the development of techniques to facilitate partial birth
abortions, when an unwanted pregnancy occurred, a govern-
ment agency otten simply told a patient she could only abort during
the first trimester. Doctors performing the procedures otten relied on visual
observations to determine compliance with the legal time limits.
15 Most reproductive freedom professionals consider flexible legal
guidelines an improvement over pre-1960 restrictions because it pro-
vides a factual and scientific basis for the abortion methodology
rather than an intuitive or emotional basis. Accordingly, many
reproductive freedom professionals regard formal abortion laws
20 to be neutral policy tools that can be employed by the gov-
ernment to make sound policy judgments that assure effi-
cient and appropriate procedures.
But are abortion laws and their proponents really neutral political
25 issues? Analysis of the choices that must be made in reproductive
issues makes the answer clear. Because pregnancy termination depends
on choices for which there is no a priori legal method of
deciding from among available assumptions, decisions
ultimately depends largely, if not predominantly, on values
30 positions rather than on legal precedent . Laws must now govern
partial birth abortion methodology for women's health, including a
determination of whether the procedure will cause an adverse
health effect; dose-response assessment of drugs, an analysis of the rela-
tionship between an administered dose and the incidence of
35 the adverse health effect; exposure assessment, an analysis of
the processes and pathways by which contact with a labor-inducement drug
creates opportunity for exposure; and risk characterization,
the process of identifying the incidence of adverse health
effects under various clinical conditions-requires the appli-
40 cation of some judgment that must ultimately rely on some-
thing less than legally-proven principles. Indeed, many
of the choices that must be made in completing a risk assess-
ment must be viewed as pure values judgments. For example,
in the hazard identification portion of an assessment, the deci-
45 sion on picking a confidence level to determine statistically
whether there has been a positive determination of whether a
labor-inducement drug is a hazard is a pure values judgment.
Decisions on reproductive freedom based on current risk assess-
50 ment procedures should therefore be viewed primarily as eth-
ical choices rather than as technically dictated conclusions. It
is important in an age of increasing scientific complexity that
interested parties attempt to understand the values positions
and ethical issues that underlie legally derived policy
55 choices. Government must bring greater clarity to the debate
about reproductive freedom through identification of the
embedded values positions and issues in therapeutic abortion
procedures.
6. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) Therapeutic abortion is an improvement over past methods because it is
based more on factual evidence than on intuition.
(B) Former President Kennedy did more than his predecessors to protect the reproductive freedom
of women by approving the use of first trimester abortion.
(C) Though perhaps more radical than previous birth control measures, partial birth
abortion is a value-free process.
(D) While the concept of partial birth abortion is enticing from a scientific viewpoint, this
method is so expensive that its use is impractical on a large scale.
(E) Since past abortion procedures were effective in the first trimester, the
government should not have approved further restrictions on its use or implementation.
7. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as part of the adverse health effects EXCEPT
(A) visual observation
(B) exposure assessment
(C) analysis of labor-inducement drugs
(D) risk characterization
(E) dose-response assessment
8. The author most probably mentions "confidence level" (line 45) in order to
(A) demonstrate that partial birth procedures are safer than past abortion methods
(B) question the accuracy of physician's clinical observations
(C) suggest that government should eliminate ambiguities in its reproductive freedom
agenda
(D) show that nonlegal principles can affect subsequent legal decisions
(E) strengthen the notion that the National Reproductive Policy Act needs to be modified
9. The author suggests which one of the following about abortion methods that
predated the development of the partial birth procedure?
(A) They are considered to be completely ineffective in protecting women's health.
(B) President Kennedy's National ReproductivePolicy Act was based on their success.
(C) Many reproductive freedom professionals are not satisfied with the results produced by
these methods.
(D) They are often difficult to apply because they depend on precise time limitations.
(E) The best features of these methods should be integrated into the partial birth
process.
10. Which of the following words, as it appears in the passage, best supports the
author's view of the role of non-legal components in the risk assessment process?
(A) improvement (line 16)
(B) neutral (line 20)
(C) adverse (line 35)
(D) opportunity (line 38)
(E) underlie (line 54)
11. The passage's reference to the "factual and scientific basis" of abortion rights
process in line 17 serves which of the following functions?
(A) It explains the government's unwillingness to choose between older methods and the assessment of newer ones.
(B) It outines the differences among reproductive freedomists over the practicality of visual
observation techniques.
(C) It underscores the belief of reproductive freedomists that risk assessment is a useful method for evaluating new procedures.
(D) It introduces birth control policy choices for which there is no a priori assessment method.
(E) It highlights the attitude of reproductive freedomists toward the National Reproductive Policy Act.
12. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) comparing risk assessment of new procedures with earlier abortion methods
(B) explaining why government should make explicit the ethical choices involved in
reproductive freedom choices
(C) highlighting government's inability to deal effectively with reproductive freedom issues
(D) reviewing the evolution of abortion methods over the past two decades
(E) proposing a new method for reproductive freedom that incorporates the best features of risk assessment
Answers and Explanations for Reading Passages
Passage 1
1. C is the correct answer. This is a main idea question and choice C matches the passage's topic and scope. Choices A, D and E are too narrow and limited, while B distorts the author's tone.
2. A is correct. Although hte question asks you to infer, it is actually a description question. Choice A is suggested in the passage's first sentence. Neither B nor C is ever suggested, while D contradicts the passage. E is tricky, but distorts the passage.
3. E is the correct choice to this inference question. It corresponds to information in paragraphs 2 and 3. Choice A is not indicated by the passage, while choice C distorts it. D seems to contrdict the passage. This is a difficult question, as the correct answer does not appear in immediately surrounding lines. In this case, the answer is suggested at the end of the previous paragraph.
4. A is correct. This is a challenging detail question with no line reference. Choice A paraphrases information at the end of paragraph 3. Choices B and C are inconsistent, while D and E are never suggested.
5. B is the correct answer. Although the question includes the word "assumption", it is actually a description question. A , D and E mention irrelevant information, while C discusses an unrelated fact. While all the choices are factually accurate, only B contains the relevant information.
Passage 2
6. Choice C correctly and elegantly sums up the author's skepticism. Choice A contradicts the author's view, while B violates the actual timeline of events. Choice D totally misses the ethical question, while E goes too far.
7. Choice A is correct. All other components appear explicitly in the four wrong choices.
8. Choice D is correct. Choices A and B refer to earlier efforts, while C comes at the very end of the passage. E has no connection with either risk assessment or the line in question.
9. Choice C is easily inferable from the passage. Choice A goes too far, while B and E aren't supported by the passage. Choice D is simply incorrect.
10. Choice E best captures the main idea. Choices A and B are not improvements, while D is too positive. Choice C is tempting, but does not capture the idea as well as E.
11. Choice C is correct. Choice A is not mentioned in the passage, while B refers to
a topic on which the passage's reproductive freedomists are undivided. Choices D and E come at incorrect points in the passage to make sense.
12. Choice B well captures the overall concept of the passage. Choice A pushes too far, while C, D and E all miss the heart of the passage.
The reading comprehension section on the GRE contains four written passages (each between 200 - 500 words long) followed by a series of questions. Passages can be about any subject, but the most common themes are politics, history, science, business and the humanities. Most readers find the passages difficult because the subject matter is dry and obscure. Many are written in the passive voice and contain unpronouncable words. By design, no academic background offers an "edge" or greater likelihood of success in this section of the test. The material is purposely selected to test your reading comprehension, rather than your understanding of a specific subject area. This ensures:
a) the passages do not require the reader to have any specialized knowledge in the subject area
b) everything you need to answer the questions is presented in the passage
The passages always use a formal, compact style. They are excerpted from academic journal articles, but are not printed verbatim. The original article is heavily edited to just one-quarter to one-third of its original length, retaining the formal style of the piece, but removing the introductory material, fillers and transitional phrases. Worse, passages are untitled and often start in the middle of an explanation or discussion, so the reader must jump in with no clear point of reference.
The purpose of the section is to determine if you can quickly identify the structure, objective and logic of a long, difficult passage and apply the author's premise to new situations. To succeed in the rigid timeframe (35 minutes), students must read with a different mindset than they use in most traditional coursework.
Here are the exact directions used on the exam:
Directions: Each selection in this test is followed by several questions. After reading the selection, choose the best response to each question and mark it on your answer sheet. Your replies are to be based on what is stated or implied in the selection.
Reading styles are subjective, as what works for one person may not work for another. Success with these passages depends on your individual style. We can't recommend speed reading, which is designed for ordinary, non-technical material. Because passages are so dense, you can not skim over a single sentence without missing key information. You should read faster than normally, but not to the point that your comprehension suffers. Experiment to find your optimum pace. Some guides recommend that you read the questions first, then go back and read the passage. Sadly, few students will have enough time for that approach. In some cases, the questions and answer choices are longer than the actual passage!
We recommend that you take a few seconds at the beginning of the section and scope out the passages. Read the first line of each and determine which will be easiest for you and which will be hardest. Do the easiest one first. Don't waste precious time on a dense, difficult passage. Rack up as many "easy" points as possible first, then return to the hardest questions.
The Five Questions
The key to performing well on the passages is not your particular reading technique, but in your familiarity with the types of possible questions. In general, there are only five question types explored on the reading comprehension test:
a) Main Idea
b) Details
c) Organization
d) Extension / Application
e) Attitude / Tone
As you become familiar with the different question types, you will gain an intuitive sense for the places from which they are likely to be drawn. You can then approach these questions quickly and efficiently. Generally, the order in which the questions are asked corresponds to the order in which the main issues are presented in the passage. Early questions should correspond to information given early in the passage, and so on.
a) Main Idea Questions
Main idea questions test your ability to identify and understand an author's intent. The main idea is usually stated:
i) in the last (occasionally the first) sentence of the first paragraph
ii) in last sentence of the entire passage.
Main idea questions are usually the first questions asked in the question set.
Some common main idea questions are:
Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
The primary purpose of the passage is to ...
In the passage, the author's primary concern is to discuss. ..
Which of the following would be an excellent title for the passage?
Main idea questions are usually not difficult. If you don't catch the main idea after your first reading, review the first and last sentence of each paragraph. These will give you a quick overview of the passage.
Because main idea questions are relatively easy, the test writers try to obscure the correct answer by surrounding it with close answer-choices that either overstate or understate the author's main point. Answers that stress specifics tend to understate the main idea, while choices that go beyond the scope of the passage tend to overstate the main idea. The correct answer to a main idea question will summarize the author's argument, yet be neither too specific nor too broad. In most cases, the main idea of a passage is found in the first paragraph or in the final sentence of the entire passage.
b) Detail Questions
Detail questions refer to a minor point or to incidental information in the passage, but not to the author's main point. These questions take various forms:
According to the passage. ..
In line 25, the author mentions....for the purpose of ...
The passage suggests that which one of the following would....
The answer to a detail question must refer directly to a statement in the passage, not to something implied by it. When answering a detail question, find the point in the passage from which the question is drawn. Don't rely on memory, as many tactics are used with these questions to confuse test takers. Not only must the correct answer refer directly to a statement in the passage, it must refer to the relevant statement. The correct answer will be surrounded by wrong choices which refer directly to the passage but don't address the question. These choices can be tempting because they tend to be quite close to the actual answer.
Once you locate the sentence to which the question refers, you must read a few sentences before and after it to put the question in context. If a question refers to line 30, the information needed to answer it can occur anywhere from line 25 to 35. Even if you spot the answer in line 28, you should still read a few more lines to ensure you have the proper perspective.
c) Organization of the Passage
Because they are derived from diverse subject areas, passages can cover an infinite number of topics.
While main idea questions ask the purpose of the piece, organization questions ask how the author presents his ideas. While authors can theoretically use an endless number of writing techniques, most test passages use one of just three organizational styles:
i) Compare and contrast two positions
This technique simply develops two ideas and then explains why one is better than the other. Some common comparison phrases include "by contrast" or "similarly".
Typical questions for these types of passages are:
According to the passage, a central distinction between a woman's position and a man's is:
In which of the following ways does the author imply that birds and reptiles are similar?
ii) Show cause and effect
The author demonstrates that a particular cause leads to a specific result. Sometimes this method introduces a sequence of causes and effects: A causes B, which causes C, which causes D, etc. Hence B is both the effect of A and the cause of C.
iii) State a position and then offer supporting evidence
This technique is common with opinionated passages. Many authors prefer the reverse order, where the supporting evidence is presented first and then the position or conclusion is stated.
Following are some typical questions for these types of passages:
According to the author, which of the following is required for one to become proficient with a computer?
Which of the following does the author cite as evidence that the species is dangerous?
d) Extension / Application Questions
Extension questions require you to go beyond what is stated in the passage, asking you to draw an inference, to make a conclusion, or to identify one of the author's tacit assumptions. You may be asked to draw a conclusion based on the ideas or facts presented:
It can be inferred from the passage that. ..
The passage suggests that. ..
From this we can conclude that.....
Since extension questions require you to go beyond the passage, the correct answer must say more than what is stated in the passage. The correct answer to an extension question will not require a quantum leap in thought, but it will add significantly to the ideas presented in the passage.
While extension questions ask you to apply what you learned from the passage to derive new information about the same subject, application questions go one step further, asking you to apply what you have learned from the passage to a different or hypothetical situation.
The following are common application questions:
Which one of the following is the most likely source of the passage?
Which of the following is an appropriate title for this piece?
Which one of the following actions would be most likely to have the same effect as the author's actions?
The author would most likely agree with which one of the following statements?
Which one of the following sentences would the author be most likely to use to complete the last paragraph of the passage?
To answer an application question, consider the author's perspective. Ask yourself:
what is he arguing for?
what might make his argument stronger?
what might make it weaker?
Because these questions go beyond the passage, they tend to be the most difficult. They require you to pick up subtleties of the author's attitude.
e) Attitude / Tone Questions
Tone questions discuss the writer's attitude or perspective. Does he feel positive, negative or neutral? Does he give his own opinion or objectively present those of others? Before reading the answer choices, decide whether the writer's tone is positive, negative or neutral. If you didn't get a feel for the writer's attitude on the first reading, check the adjectives used (they nearly always have a strong positive or negative connotation).
Beware of answer choices that contain extreme emotions. Passages are usually taken from academic journals, where strong emotions are considered inappropriate. The writers usually display opinions that are considered and reasonable, not spontaneous or off-the-wall. The tone or attitude of a passage closely parallels the main idea. If the author's intent is to explain the reasons for abolishing slavery, the tone is explanatory or encouraging, not negative or discouraging. The correct answer will also be indisputable. The test writers NEVER allow the correct answer to be vague, controversial or grammatically questionable.
Key Words That Identify Potential Questions
Each passage contains about 400 - 700 words and only a few questions, ensuring that you will NOT be tested on most of the specific details. Your best reading strategy is to identify the places from which questions will most likely be drawn and concentrate your attention there.
Key, pivotal words indicate contrast, warning that the author is about to either make a U-turn or introduce a counter-premise (a concession to a minor point that weakens his case). Common pivotal words include:
But Although In Contrast Even though
However Yet Nonetheless Except
Despite Nevertheless
These words show where the author changes direction, providing natural places for questions to be drawn. The test writers form questions at these junctures to test whether you followed the author's line of reasoning or got lost. Sentences containing pivotal words nearly ALWAYS contain the answer to a test question.
Handling Incorrect Answer Choices
One of the most difficult tasks in writing test questions is composing tempting, incorrect answer choices. In most cases, only two of the five choices will have any real merit. We've observed several common threads in the wrong answer choices that most test takers should consider. Be on the look-out for the following:
a) For main idea questions, incorrect choices use the wrong verb and focus on supporting details, rather than the main point of the passage. Incorrect choices also tend to either overstate or understate the author's view. Beware of extreme choices, as they are often wrong. Correct answers tend to be rational, measured responses. Other tempting incorrect answer choice are "half-right, half-wrong", incorporating some of the author's view, but not a complete match. Other wrong answers pick a point of view that is inconcistent with the author's.
b) On detail questions, incorrect answer choices distort the author's words or are exact opposites of the correct answer.
c) For inference questions, incorrect choices distort the passage's ideas and go beyond the scope of the passage. For application questions, wrong choices are not parallel or analagous to the situation in the passage.
d) Incorrect tone answers are overly emotional or the opposite of the correct answer. Some incorrect answers are odd combinations of adjectives that make no sense in real world applications, such as "detached ambivalence", "enlightened apathy", and "muffled denial".
e) Sometimes incorrect answers are logically wrong. They misrepresent the author's purpose or focus on the "what" rather than the "why" of the detail.
f) Watch for unusual or uncommon usage of words. Students sometimes overlook points in passages because a familiar word is used in an unfamiliar manner. An example is champion. As a noun, champion means a hero or accomplished person. Yet, a a verb, champion means to support or advocate.
g) Be wary of extreme answers that contain "all or nothing" buzzwords such as must, always, impossible, never, cannot, each, every, totally, all, solely and only. Few passages will be written in such an absolute tone.
Two Sample Reading Comprehension Passage (and Solutions)
Now we will apply all the methods we have learned to two test passages. To parallel the timing of the actual test, spend about 10 minutes on each passage.
Passage 1
Among the several hundred million cells that comprise the wondrously complex
human body, and thus to be theoretically detectable in lab tests and in
electron photomicrographs, a tiny fraction, no more than a few hundred, belong
to a curious subclass whose luminiscence has a wavelength distribution so unique that
5 it long defied explanation. Such systems luminisce strongly in the visible region of the
spectrum, but some of them do so even more strongly at both shorter and longer
wavelengths: in the ultraviolet region and in the infrared regions.
10 This odd distribution of luminiscence is best explained by the pairing
of a giant red blood cell and an intensely small white blood cell that is virtually
in contact with its larger companion as the two travel around a common center.
Such objects have become known as Clinging cells. On photographic plates
only the giant cell can be discerned, but evidence for the existence of the
15 tiny companion has now been supplied by magnifying instruments capable
of detecting ultraviolet luminiscence at wavelengths that are absorbed by the body's
heat and therefore cannot be detected by typical analytical instruments.
The spectra of Clinging cells indicate that the giant red blood cell is surrounded by
20 very thin lipid filaments. The existence of the lipid filaments marked such objects as
being unique several decades before clinical observations finally identified the
lipid as the luminiscence from the tiny companion white blood cell. Clinging cells
also flare up in outbursts indicating the ejection of material in the form of a shell
or a ring, reminiscent of the recurrent circulation of hormonal cells. Clinging cells may
25 therefore represent a transitory phase in the evolution of certain types of hormonal
systems in which there is a substantial transfer of matter from the larger partner
to the smaller.
The exact evolutionary course that turns a typical blood cell system into a clinging one is
30 a matter of conjecture. The comparatively small number of known Clinging cells
in our bodies suggests that if all binaries of modest mass normally pass through
a clinging phase in their evolution, the phase must be extremely brief, perhaps
as short as a millisecond.
1. The author's primary purpose in the passage is to
(A) demonstrate that most hormonal systems were at one time clinging
(B) dismiss current knowledge of Clinging cells as overly speculative
(C) describe Clinging cells as a distinct type of cell system
(D) present evidence that hormonal systems are formed from tiny white blood cells
(E) compare characteristics of giant red blood cells and tiny white blood cells
2. The passage implies that Clinging cell systems differ from other hormonal systems
in that the former
(A) display luminiscence patterns different from those of most hormonal systems
(B) contain two cells that revolve around a common center
(C) possess far greater mass than other hormonal systems
(D) are more common in our bodies than other hormonal systems
(E) are the only hormonal systems that can be detected by electron microscopes
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about "the luminiscence"
mentioned in line 22?
(A) It causes certain large red blood cells cells to appear tiny to observers.
(B) It was incorrectly associated with hormonal cells in our bodies.
(C) It interferes with the clarity of photographs of most hormonal systems.
(D) It corresponds to the visible region of the light spectrum.
(E) It could not be positively identified from phtomicrograph observations.
4. According to the passage, the exchange of matter within a Clinging cell system
is believed to be a process in which
(A) cell grows in mass at the expense of the other
(B) the mass of each cell remains fairly stable
(C) the mass of both cells declines
(D) both cells absorb matter emitted by other nearby cells
(E) both cells gradually return to an earlier singular state
5. The assumption that the Clinging cell phase in the evolution of some hormonal
systems "must be extremely brief " (line ) is most likely based on the fact that
(A) hormones are rapidly ejected from clinging systems
(B) few Clinging cells have been detected in our bodies
(C) the cells in a clinging pair are in close proximity to each other
(D) Clinging cells vary considerably in size from one another
(E) the outbursts of Clinging cells resemble those of hormonal cells
Passage 2
Nearly forty years ago, former President Kennedy signed
the National Reproductive Policy Act, this nation's first major federal
law addressing federal reproductive freedom. Although the nation has
now witnessed almost forty years of continuing debate
5 about abortion freedom law, a relatively new element has recent-
ly entered the controversy: the use of partial birth procedures and
their high risks in facilitating voluntary third trimester pregnancy
terminations.
10 Before the development of techniques to facilitate partial birth
abortions, when an unwanted pregnancy occurred, a govern-
ment agency otten simply told a patient she could only abort during
the first trimester. Doctors performing the procedures otten relied on visual
observations to determine compliance with the legal time limits.
15 Most reproductive freedom professionals consider flexible legal
guidelines an improvement over pre-1960 restrictions because it pro-
vides a factual and scientific basis for the abortion methodology
rather than an intuitive or emotional basis. Accordingly, many
reproductive freedom professionals regard formal abortion laws
20 to be neutral policy tools that can be employed by the gov-
ernment to make sound policy judgments that assure effi-
cient and appropriate procedures.
But are abortion laws and their proponents really neutral political
25 issues? Analysis of the choices that must be made in reproductive
issues makes the answer clear. Because pregnancy termination depends
on choices for which there is no a priori legal method of
deciding from among available assumptions, decisions
ultimately depends largely, if not predominantly, on values
30 positions rather than on legal precedent . Laws must now govern
partial birth abortion methodology for women's health, including a
determination of whether the procedure will cause an adverse
health effect; dose-response assessment of drugs, an analysis of the rela-
tionship between an administered dose and the incidence of
35 the adverse health effect; exposure assessment, an analysis of
the processes and pathways by which contact with a labor-inducement drug
creates opportunity for exposure; and risk characterization,
the process of identifying the incidence of adverse health
effects under various clinical conditions-requires the appli-
40 cation of some judgment that must ultimately rely on some-
thing less than legally-proven principles. Indeed, many
of the choices that must be made in completing a risk assess-
ment must be viewed as pure values judgments. For example,
in the hazard identification portion of an assessment, the deci-
45 sion on picking a confidence level to determine statistically
whether there has been a positive determination of whether a
labor-inducement drug is a hazard is a pure values judgment.
Decisions on reproductive freedom based on current risk assess-
50 ment procedures should therefore be viewed primarily as eth-
ical choices rather than as technically dictated conclusions. It
is important in an age of increasing scientific complexity that
interested parties attempt to understand the values positions
and ethical issues that underlie legally derived policy
55 choices. Government must bring greater clarity to the debate
about reproductive freedom through identification of the
embedded values positions and issues in therapeutic abortion
procedures.
6. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) Therapeutic abortion is an improvement over past methods because it is
based more on factual evidence than on intuition.
(B) Former President Kennedy did more than his predecessors to protect the reproductive freedom
of women by approving the use of first trimester abortion.
(C) Though perhaps more radical than previous birth control measures, partial birth
abortion is a value-free process.
(D) While the concept of partial birth abortion is enticing from a scientific viewpoint, this
method is so expensive that its use is impractical on a large scale.
(E) Since past abortion procedures were effective in the first trimester, the
government should not have approved further restrictions on its use or implementation.
7. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as part of the adverse health effects EXCEPT
(A) visual observation
(B) exposure assessment
(C) analysis of labor-inducement drugs
(D) risk characterization
(E) dose-response assessment
8. The author most probably mentions "confidence level" (line 45) in order to
(A) demonstrate that partial birth procedures are safer than past abortion methods
(B) question the accuracy of physician's clinical observations
(C) suggest that government should eliminate ambiguities in its reproductive freedom
agenda
(D) show that nonlegal principles can affect subsequent legal decisions
(E) strengthen the notion that the National Reproductive Policy Act needs to be modified
9. The author suggests which one of the following about abortion methods that
predated the development of the partial birth procedure?
(A) They are considered to be completely ineffective in protecting women's health.
(B) President Kennedy's National ReproductivePolicy Act was based on their success.
(C) Many reproductive freedom professionals are not satisfied with the results produced by
these methods.
(D) They are often difficult to apply because they depend on precise time limitations.
(E) The best features of these methods should be integrated into the partial birth
process.
10. Which of the following words, as it appears in the passage, best supports the
author's view of the role of non-legal components in the risk assessment process?
(A) improvement (line 16)
(B) neutral (line 20)
(C) adverse (line 35)
(D) opportunity (line 38)
(E) underlie (line 54)
11. The passage's reference to the "factual and scientific basis" of abortion rights
process in line 17 serves which of the following functions?
(A) It explains the government's unwillingness to choose between older methods and the assessment of newer ones.
(B) It outines the differences among reproductive freedomists over the practicality of visual
observation techniques.
(C) It underscores the belief of reproductive freedomists that risk assessment is a useful method for evaluating new procedures.
(D) It introduces birth control policy choices for which there is no a priori assessment method.
(E) It highlights the attitude of reproductive freedomists toward the National Reproductive Policy Act.
12. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) comparing risk assessment of new procedures with earlier abortion methods
(B) explaining why government should make explicit the ethical choices involved in
reproductive freedom choices
(C) highlighting government's inability to deal effectively with reproductive freedom issues
(D) reviewing the evolution of abortion methods over the past two decades
(E) proposing a new method for reproductive freedom that incorporates the best features of risk assessment
Answers and Explanations for Reading Passages
Passage 1
1. C is the correct answer. This is a main idea question and choice C matches the passage's topic and scope. Choices A, D and E are too narrow and limited, while B distorts the author's tone.
2. A is correct. Although hte question asks you to infer, it is actually a description question. Choice A is suggested in the passage's first sentence. Neither B nor C is ever suggested, while D contradicts the passage. E is tricky, but distorts the passage.
3. E is the correct choice to this inference question. It corresponds to information in paragraphs 2 and 3. Choice A is not indicated by the passage, while choice C distorts it. D seems to contrdict the passage. This is a difficult question, as the correct answer does not appear in immediately surrounding lines. In this case, the answer is suggested at the end of the previous paragraph.
4. A is correct. This is a challenging detail question with no line reference. Choice A paraphrases information at the end of paragraph 3. Choices B and C are inconsistent, while D and E are never suggested.
5. B is the correct answer. Although the question includes the word "assumption", it is actually a description question. A , D and E mention irrelevant information, while C discusses an unrelated fact. While all the choices are factually accurate, only B contains the relevant information.
Passage 2
6. Choice C correctly and elegantly sums up the author's skepticism. Choice A contradicts the author's view, while B violates the actual timeline of events. Choice D totally misses the ethical question, while E goes too far.
7. Choice A is correct. All other components appear explicitly in the four wrong choices.
8. Choice D is correct. Choices A and B refer to earlier efforts, while C comes at the very end of the passage. E has no connection with either risk assessment or the line in question.
9. Choice C is easily inferable from the passage. Choice A goes too far, while B and E aren't supported by the passage. Choice D is simply incorrect.
10. Choice E best captures the main idea. Choices A and B are not improvements, while D is too positive. Choice C is tempting, but does not capture the idea as well as E.
11. Choice C is correct. Choice A is not mentioned in the passage, while B refers to
a topic on which the passage's reproductive freedomists are undivided. Choices D and E come at incorrect points in the passage to make sense.
12. Choice B well captures the overall concept of the passage. Choice A pushes too far, while C, D and E all miss the heart of the passage.
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